Top 10 earn money idea.: July 2014

Q-1 What feature does LinkedIn offer for pay accounts?
a. Ability to post pictures
b. Increased abilities to connect directly and send messages to people
c. Ability to post in Groups and create a Group
d. Ability to block users

Q-2 Which of the following would be leveraging both social network and traditional marketing?

a. Handing out print advertisements with a coupon for a store

b. A print advertisement in a magazine which drives people to a website where there is a free trial offer

c. Posting an advertisement on a message board

d. Hosting a video ad on YouTube not otherwise seen elsewhere

Q-3 Why is it important to post to a blog regularly?

a. It reduces the cost per blog post

b. Keep readers engaged and also gives search engines content to index

c. It gives the social media marketing specialist something to do

d. It allows more chances for the company to put down the competition

Q-4 How can a company use the same material for both traditional and social network marketing?

a. Posting a luring comment on Twitter to the company site

b. Selling ad space on the company website

c. Utilizing a television ad campaign online as well on their site and sites such as YouTube

d. Creating a magazine print ad with the company website

Q-5 How is site traffic useful in evaluating marketing?

a. Overall site traffic can be followed and a general idea of marketing's impact on it can be determined

b. There is no correlation site traffic and marketing

c. Ads can send receivers to a specific landing page, which can be tracked

d. Product sales from the company website can be attributed directly to themarketingcampaign

Q-6 How does YouTube serve a dualpurpose in social mediamarketing?

a. It can be used as a company blog as well as video advertisements

b. It can be used for company pictures and videos

c. It can be used to host the company website as well as videos

d. It can be used as the forum for dispersing company videos, as well as a host when embedding videos in sites outside of YouTube

Q-7 How can LinkedIn serve the company aside from social network marketing?

a. Job openings can easily be dispersed to qualified candidates on LinkedIn

b. Company pictures can be posted to the profile

c. Negative press about the competition can be easily spread

d. Pricing lists can be posted

Q-8 How does a blog directly impact sales of a company?

a. It tells customers what products to buy

b. It can be used to talk negatively about the competition

c. It is typically used as the way to disperse company coupons

d. Typically a blog does not directly create sales

Q-9 What is “guerilla marketing”?

a. Marketing geared towards animal lovers

b. Marketing which relies on time and energy rather than a large dollar budget

c. Aggressive sales techniques

d. Marketing using a large scale national budget

Q-10 What non financial measure of marketing is important to track?

a. CEO performance

b. Number of new hires in marketing

c. Number of impressions

d. New customer acquisition

Q-11 Why is it important to have a company blog hosted on the company web domain versus a third party blogging site?

a. Required by law

b. Search engine rankings will include hits on the blog as part of the overall website hits

c. Requires less effort to maintain

d. Cannot be hacked easily

Q-12 How often should a marketing plan be revisited?

a. Never, once written it is complete

b. As often as needed in order to revisit the plan of action and revise any new actions

c. At company board meetings

d. During the financial review of the company each month

Q-13 How can a company convert posts on Twitter to sales?

a. Write demanding points about the competition

b. Write posts about personal information of the CEO

c. Creating posts which drive followers to their site

d. Constantly post updates about how the company needs more sales

Q-14 What does the product portion of the 4 P's of marketing focus on?

a. The product of service being marketed to consumers

b. The manufacturing process

c. How the price will be set for the product

d. How the new product will be promoted

Q-15 What is the general purpose of posting a video blog routinely to YouTube?

a. It allows the company to hard sell its products

b. It allows the company to drive website traffic to its blog

c. It can be used to disperse the company contact information

d. It allows followers to create a personal connection with the employees of the company

Q-16 Which type of marketing would a company blog be considered?

a. Social Network Marketing

b. Traditional Marketing

c. Both

d. Neither

Q-17 What additional feature does Facebook have that helps engage in a dialogue with followers?

a. Ability to leave message for each other

b. Ability to chat live

c. Ability to post updates live

d. Ability to post updates from a mobile device

e. All of the above

Q-18 Why is Facebook the most well rounded social networking marketing space?

a. It has been around the longest

b. It does not cost any money

c. It allows for video, short posts, long posts, articles, pictures-all aspects of other sites combined into one

d. It allows for pictures

Q-19 What is meant by the concept of “viral” in social media?

a. Social media which is spread to viewers by the consumer, growing in popularity

b. It is a method of branding a company

c. Advertising which can easily be emailed

d.Marketingadvertisements which are not serious

Q-20 What is the term adopted for updates by Twitter users?

a. Tweets

b. Twoots

c. Twinks

d. Posts

Q-21 What would be the marketing budget section of a marketing plan consist of?

a. The cost to write the plan

b. The expected costs for each ad campaign based on the delivery method

c. The overall marketing budget for a year

d. The marketing personnel job descriptions

Q-22 What is “wiki”?

a. Form of blogging

b. A social networking site

c. Interconnected and user generated knowledge management systems

d. A tool for posting to social media networks

Q-23 What is the method for being linked to other users on LinkedIn?

a. Followers

b. Connections

c. Friends

d. Associates

Q-24 What does updates to Facebook status resemble most closely?

a. Video blogs

b. Posts on Twitter

c. A company white page

d. Articles on LinkedIn

Q-25 What is one measure a company can use to validate the usefulness of its video posts on YouTube?

a. The number of followers

b. The amount of views of the video

c. The number of videos the company has up

d. The sales volume of the company

Q-26 What can a company do on Facebook apart from their page to create a following?

a. Post more updates than usual

b. Post controversial posts

c. Use several pictures

d. Use Groups, both company originated and posting to other groups

Q-27 What is meant by “Marketing Creative”?

a. The employees in the marketing department

b. The content for marketing and its creative aspect

c. The methods used to distribute marketing material

d. The branding image of the company

Q-28 What is another term for “social media”?

a. Media Optimization

b. Consumer Generated Media

c. Advertising Socialization

d. Consumer Media Advertising

Q-29 How can a company place itself as an expert in a certain area of expertise?

a. Post updates which brag about the company

b. Actively answer questions in the Q&A section of the site

c. Post comments on competitors pages stating how they are inferior

d. Answer questions in all categories, even ones the company is not in business of.

Q-30 What style of blogging would be most effective for building relationships with customers?

a. Using the blog only for press releases

b. Posting resumes of the company officers

c. Posting articles about how terrific the company is, and putting down the competition

d. Writing posts about the company and its ups and downs from inside, personalized approach

Q-31 What traditional marketing technique is YouTube closest to?

a. Print advertising

b. Television advertising

c. Radio advertising

d. Mail Advertising

Q-32 What does the Answers section of LinkedIn allow people to do?

a. Users to post questions directly to companies

b. Post questions based on a category, and receive responses from experts in the field

c. Posts links to the company press releases

d. A meeting place for new connections

Q-33 What do Connections on LinkedIn effectively represent?

a. Random strangers who found the company

b. People the company has sold product or services to

c. An avenue to disperse coupons

d. People and other companies the user is connected to directly

Q-34 What is the character limit for posts on Twitter?

a. No limit

b. 100 characters

c. 140 characters

d. 200 characters

Q-35 What should a company post on Twitter?

a. New product launches

b. Significant company news

c. Occasional day to day posts of interest

d. All of the above

Q-36 Which of the following is an important aspect of creating blogs and posting content?

a. Using a witty user name

b. Posting at least once a month to the blog

c. Social Media Optimization

d. Using humor

Q-37 What type of status updates would drive visitors to the company site?

a. An update telling friends they hope to see them all soon

b. A link to a new press release hosted on the company site

c. A link to a third party hosting a company press release

d. A picture of the CEO

Q-38 How can a company ensure that the proper audience finds their YouTube videos?

a. Post links on the company blog to the YouTube videos

b. There is no method to effectively direct people to the company videos

c. Use of keywords

d. Sending out mail advertisements

Q-39 What is meant by A/B testing in marketing?

a. Testing of 2 different products

b. Testing 2 versions of an advertisement to see which elicits the best response

c. Clinical testing of medical products before legally allowing them for sale

d. Testing via 2 mediums, such as radio and television

Q-40 What is “social media optimization”?

a. Creating content which easily creates publicity via social networks

b. Writing clear content

c. Creating short content which is easily indexed

d. Hiring people to create content for social networks

Elance - Customer Service Test 2014
Question: 01
What should be done at the end of a phone call with a customer after resolving an issue they had?

    a.     Try to sell them something new.
    b.     Ask them to write a nice letter to the company praising the customer service agent.
    c.     Tell them only the first customer service call is free.
    d.     Repeat to the customer what you resolved and any further actions you'll be taking.

Question: 02
What is customer profiling?

    a.     Reporting customer data to government agencies
    b.     A customer filling in a profile online
    c.     Using customer data to determine an overall company marketing campaign
    d.     Using a series of data points to place customers into groups and tailoring their experience with your company

Question: 03
Which of the following would be the best thing to say to an irate customer?

    a.     Please call back later.
    b.     I'll have to ask my manager to approve what you are asking for.
    c.     I can see why you feel that way.
    d.     Why didn't you buy a competitor's product.

Question: 04
Why would a company want to know the profitability and sales history of customers?

    a.     They would automatically drop the lowest 10% of customers.
    b.     They can ask the higher sales clients to act as representatives of the company.
    c.     It offers the company potential for directing their marketing campaigns effectively on the basis of their buying habits.
    d.     They can find out who owes the company money.

Question: 05
What is the first step in mollifying a customer who has received bad service?

    a.     Ask the customer what the problem is.
    b.     Try to offer him/her something for free to pacify him/her.
    c.     Ask him/her to submit a complaint first.
    d.     Express regrets and promise to provide better service in future.

Question: 06
Why is giving a customer the required information considered good customer service?

    a.     It makes the customer feel they got something for nothing.
    b.     It makes the customer feel guilty if they ever have a problem.
    c.     It allows you to upsell to the customer something they do not need.
    d.     It allows you to add value for the customer and help them make an informed decision.

Question: 07
What is meant by a "hard no"?

    a.     Saying 'no' to the customer but offering alternatives
    b.     Saying 'yes' to the customer at first but switching to 'no' later
    c.     Saying 'yes' to the customer with no intention of following through
    d.     Saying 'no' to the customer and offering no alternative solution

Question: 08
What are the two factors to consider when Creating Customer Service Strategy?

    a.     Employee reception to the plan, and customer reception to the plan
    b.     The cost of implementing, and employee reception
    c.     The time needed to create and implement, and the cost of implementation
    d.     The competition's as well as the customers' reaction to the plan

Question
What is a data warehouse?

    a.     A single database for the CRM program
    b.     The physical warehouse where the company servers are stored
    c.     A database that stores information from several other data sources, allowing a CRM system to query multiple databases from one location
    d.     A program that is used to create financial reports

Question: 10
What final step can be taken to put your firm's customer service above that of all others?

    a.     Offer to refund more than the product value.
    b.     Let customers know what the standard procedure for handling irate customers is up front.
    c.     Give the customers time to cool off by asking them to call back later.
    d.     Follow up with customers after the fact to make sure they are happy with the resolution.

Question: 11
Which of the following would be a potential segmenting factor for customers?

    a.     Age range
    b.     Zip code
    c.     The industry they work in
    d.     All of the above

Question: 12
Which of the following would a customer not expect from a customer service agent?

    a.     Discretion
    b.     Rudeness
    c.     Effectiveness
    d.     Authenticity

Question: 13
What should be the ultimate goal of problem solving with the customer?

    a.     To save the company money
    b.     To get them off the phone quickly
    c.     To get referrals to other customers
    d.     To make them happy

Question: 14
What is meant by a "care token"?

    a.     To handle customers who are not happy with the company "with care"
    b.     A gesture made by the company to retain a customer after his/her having experienced bad customer service
    c.     A gesture made by the company as a last resort to get the customer to leave
    d.     A bonus to exceptionally good customer service agents

Question: 15
What should be the first thing to be done in problem solving?

    a.     Verify the information the customer has provided and any additional facts if required.
    b.     Tell the customer they will get whatever they want.
    c.     Tell the customer you'll see what you can do but not to expect much.
    d.     Look for errors in the customer's story

Question: 16
What should be done with an irate customer after they have vented out and explained their situation?

    a.     Ask them to call back later when they have calmed down.
    b.     Express empathy.
    c.     Put them on hold and pass them onto a manager.
    d.     Issue them a refund regardless of the problem.

Question: 17
What is the importance of customer oriented goodwill?

    a.     It allows for cheaper resolutions to customer conflict.
    b.     It is a good substitute for good customer service.
    c.     It allows the management to measure how well customer service is being performed.
    d.     It puts the company ahead of the competitors in respect of customer service.

Question: 18
Why do customers feel the need of some control in working to resolve an issue with a company?

    a.     They feel they are getting more for their money.
    b.     Customers feel that this way, they can get whatever they want, at least temporarily.
    c.     It ensures the customer will buy again.
    d.     It puts them in a positive mood and allows them to help guide the resolution

Question: 19
What is the first step in dealing with a customer when he/she is irate?

    a.     Tell him/her to be quiet and listen.
    b.     Tell him/her to call back when he/she has calmed down.
    c.     Ask the customer what can be done to solve the problem.
    d.     Let the customer give vent to his/her feelings and do not try to interrupt him/her.

Question: 20
What is the advantage of email based customer service?

    a.     It makes dealing with irate customers easier.
    b.     It provides an easy reference to past communication with the client.
    c.     It is impersonal.
    d.     Canned responses can be sent back.

Question: 21
Which of the following would be the best way to offer customer service online?

    a.     To make a form people can submit available online
    b.     To supply answers to FAQ's online
    c.     To make live chat with company representatives available 24/7
    d.     To make company phone number available online

Question: 22
What is the purpose of FAQ's (frequently asked questions)?

    a.     To give the website more content which looks impressive
    b.     To spur the customers to ask additional questions
    c.     To position the company as an industry leader
    d.     To answer questions customers often have so they can easily find the answer without having to ask

Question: 23
How do CRM(Customer Relationship Management) systems help in sending a consistent message to customers?

    a.     The same draft of an email can be sent to every single customer thus ensuring consistency.
    b.     They are used for all marketing efforts of a company.
    c.     Information can be distributed via the CRM system for sending the same message to all the customers in the same group.
    d.     The CRM system always works as the back end for the company website.

Question: 24
Which of the following would be considered going the extra mile in resolving a past customer service issue?

    a.     Replacing an item under warranty
    b.     Answering a call within two minutes
    c.     Absorbing any extra costs such as shipping costs incurred by the customer as a result of the problem
    d.     Sending him/her a complaint form to fill out

Question: 25
Why do the customers' needs change according to the nature of the situation?

    a.     People are fickle and want different things even in the same situation depending on different occasions.
    b.     Needs are different depending on what the customer values as important under the circumstances.
    c.     Needs changed according to the financial situation of the customer at the time.
    d.     The customer can probably be talked into focusing on their wants instead of needs.

Question: 26
Why should a firm say they are sorry even if they feel the customer is wrong?

    a.     The firm can later tell the customer he/she was actually the wrong one, after he/she has calmed down.
    b.     The firm should always take the blame and learn from it.
    c.     The focus should be on finding out what would satisfy the customer and solving the problem, not determining blame.
    d.     They can later put the blame on a third party.

Question: 27
How can a company create an atmosphere of continuous improvement and have employees who strive to perform?

    a.     By reducing headcount by 10% each year
    b.     By making it mandatory for the employees to attend company meetings
    c.     By offering incentives, both financial and non financial, for good performance
    d.     By telling the employees that mystery callers will evaluate them

Question: 28
What would be a good opening line in replying to an irate customer's email?

    a.     Please call customer service.
    b.     We are glad you are enjoying our product/service.
    c.     Thank you for your email, we are sorry to hear about the problem you have.
    d.     We will get back to you within 7 days.

Question: 29
How important is the tone of voice when talking to someone on the phone?

    a.     Extremely important
    b.     Not important at all
    c.     Slightly important
    d.     Depends on the situation

Question: 30
What would perfect customer relationship management entail?

    a.     Saving the company money
    b.     Immediate customer gratification and personalized interactions with each customer
    c.     Reducing the call times of customer complaints
    d.     Increased visibility into the financial situation of the company

Question: 31
What is the disadvantage of email based customer service?

    a.     It is more cost effective than other methods.
    b.     It allows the company to respond quickly.
    c.     It gives the company a trail of communications with the customer.
    d.     It is unemotional and doesn't always allow the customer to convey the importance of their question or issue.

Question: 32
What general rule does phone etiquette require customer service representatives to follow?

    a.     Ask the other party how you can help them.
    b.     Say "Hello?" then pause.
    c.     Ask them for their name or customer number before greeting them.
    d.     Try to redirect the caller to someone else.

Question: 33
What is a continuous improvement plan?

    a.     A predetermined plan to continually help the employees keep themselves informed of the company's latest initiatives in order ultimately to make themselves better at customer service
    b.     A plan to educate the consumer about the products
    c.     A plan to help the management understand the customers' needs better
    d.     A predetermined plan to help the employees learn more about the company's financial situation and the company's need to perform better

Question: 34
What should be said to a customer when putting them on hold?

    a.     Say nothing. Just put them on hold.
    b.     Say "just a minute"; then put them on hold.
    c.     Ask them first if it is okay to put them on hold for a moment.
    d.     Tell them they need to hold for several minutes.

Question: 35
How can a company's online ordering process be made more customer friendly?

    a.     Ask for lots of details so the customer can be catered to in the future.
    b.     Try to sell customers additional products and services unsolicited.
    c.     Place ads on the order page for additional products.
    d.     Only ask for information necessary to process the order.

Question: 36
What is meant by taking a top down approach to creating a strategy?

    a.     Having customer service agents work in management
    b.     Creating high level initiatives only
    c.     Starting by building strategies upwards from the customer level
    d.     Having high level managers work in customer service for a short period of time so they can experience it before laying down policies

Question: 37
What would be the two needs of a customer when visiting a theme park?

    a.     Safety and Fun
    b.     Accuracy and Certainty
    c.     Efficiency and Seriousness
    d.     Low cost and Tranquility

Question: 38
Which of the following would be a measurable aspect of customer service?

    a.     The number of products sold
    b.     An overall customer satisfaction rating of 90%
    c.     How displeased customers are in general
    d.     A profit margin of 30%

Question: 39
Which of the following is a customer need?

    a.     Premium pricing
    b.     Experienced management
    c.     Friendly customer service
    d.     Growing financial performance

Question: 40
What does CRM software allow a company to do?

    a.     Create one to many relationships with customer groups
    b.     Create many to one relationships with customers
    c.     Send financial reports to the management
    d.     Create a one to one relationship with each customer

Elance - Windows XP Test 2014
QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements is true if you open an existing file, make changes to it, and save it with a newname?The original file will be deleted.Answer: The original file remains unchanged.

The left side of the Start menu contains two parts, separated by a thin horizontal line. The Windows XP term for manually inserting a shortcut to one of your chosen applications into the top part of the left side (by using the right-context menu of the application in Windows Explorer) is called:

Answer: Attaching an application to the Start menu.

Which of the following features is/are available in Windows XP?

Answer: A built-in CD burner ,Windows Media Player ,Internet Connection Firewall

The Microsoft file format that contains the bitmapped graphics and metadata for the skins used in the three preinstalled Windows XP visual themes is:

Answer: .msthemes

Which of the following statements about the Stand By option while shutting down your computer is/are correct?

Answer: It helps to conserve power by shutting off some hardware, like the hard disk.

Which statement(s) about the Recycle Bin is/are correct?

Answer: You can restore any selected files from the Recycle Bin folder by right clicking and then selecting Restore.

Which of the following statements about Windows XP features is/are correct?

Answer: Windows XP can automatically download updates.
Windows XP offline files allows you to synchronize your files with your file server.
There is a “System Restore” functionality within Windows XP.

While viewing file names through the Windows Explorer, what happens if you drag and drop a file named letter1.txt on top of another file named letter2.txt lying in the same folder?

Answer: Nothing will happen.

Which of the following type of objects can you search on your computer and on the network, using Windows XP Search Companion?

Answer: All of the above

You can create and edit files using the Windows Notepad. What is the extension of a file that has been created using Notepad?

Answer: .txt

Microsoft makes available a tool called the _____________________ for checking computers with a Windows operating system. This tool helps remove infections left by third-party software installed on the computer and displays a report describing the outcome in a log file named mrt.log in the %WINDIR%\debug folder.

Answer: Microsoft Windows Malicious Software Removal Tool

Windows XP includes a new type of view for folders that contain graphics files. This folder view is called _________ and displays small images of all the graphics in the folder in the bottom right-hand pane of Windows Explorer and a large image of a selected picture in the top right-hand pane.

Answer: Gallery

You have created a directory called TEST that includes the files test1.txt, test2.txt, test3.txt, test4.txt, test5.txt, and test6.txt. How can you select test2.txt, text3.txt, and test6.txt from the list of files visible in the Windows Explorer?

Answer: Press Ctrl and click on the three required files, one by one.

State whether the following statement is true or false.

With Windows XP, you cannot specify that files with certain file name extensions should always open in the same program.

Answer: False

What should you type on the command prompt to return back to Windows?

Answer: Exit

Starting with Windows 95, the File Manager tool for organizing and controlling the files and folders of the computer’s storage systems, such as the hard drive(s) and disk drive(s) has been called:

Answer: Windows Explorer

Windows XP has several command-line utility tools for troubleshooting the computer. Suppose that your computer seems to have a problem with connecting to the Internet. Before reporting your connectivity problems to your ISP, which tool could you use to display the current TCP/IP network configuration values and to refresh the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings?

Answer: Ipconfig

Which of the following activities can you accomplish with the Remote Desktop feature in Windows XP?

Answer: You can view files and documents on your computer’s desktop from a coworker’s computer.

Windows XP tracks whatever files that load during every boot and application launches, and the operating system uses that information to prefetch files into RAM. These prefetch data are parsed into a file named __________ located in the Windows\Prefetch folder on the boot drive. Every three days, a limited defragmentation operation automatically occurs in the background during idle for only those files in that file to further speed up the computer’s file access.

Answer: Prefetch.sys

Which keyboard shortcut could be used to check the spelling of a text file?

Ans: F7

Which among the following is not true regarding the use of a pie chart?

Ans: A pie chart should be used when there are more than seven categories.

This question is based upon the figure shown below
What is the maximum number of columns that can be created in the Columns dialog box as shown in the picture?

Ans: 13

This question is based upon the figure shown below
Refer to the given image. In Picture1, axes appear on the left side. Which setting should you use to make them appear on the right side, as shown in Picture2?

Ans: Select the Axis Options tab in the Format Axis dialog box. Set the Axis labels: field to High.

Ans: Trust access to the VBA project object model.

State whether true or false:
A building block can be added to as many galleries as you want.

Ans: True

Which of the following is/are true about phishing?

Ans: It is an online fraud technique used by criminals to lure users into disclosing their personal information.

Which among the following options is the reason of text deletion at the insertion point when you type a document?

Ans: The “overtype mode” is turned on in Word options.

What is meant by Enhanced ScreenTips?

Ans: Enhanced ScreenTips are larger windows that display more descriptive text than a ScreenTip and can have a link to a Help topic.

State whether true or false:
Any changes that are saved to “Normal.dotm” will be applied to the documents that you create in the future.

Ans: True

State whether true or false:
Changing the Author property in the Document Information Panel of an existing document has no effect on the User name setting in the Word Options dialog box.
Ans: True

This question is based upon the figure shown below
How will the Message Bar alerts be enabled as shown in the given picture?
Ans: Select Word Options from the Microsoft Office Button. Click on Trust Center, then click Trust Center Settings, and then click Message Bar.

Which among the following is not a Bookmark option to sort the list of bookmarks in the document?

Ans: Author

This question is based upon the figure shown below
Why is the “Different First Page” option used in the Page Setup dialog box as shown in the given picture?

Ans: This option allows you to remove the Page Number from the first page.

Which among the following is a correct way to make your file “Read-only?”

Ans: Click “Save As” from the Microsoft Office Button. Click on Tools and then click General Options. Select the Read-only recommended check box. Click OK. Click on Save.

Which of the following can be the reason for the appearance of the red X, as shown in the picture?

Ans: All of the above

predefined list styles are available when you first create a document in Word 2007.

Ans: False

What steps should be followed to replace a shape with other shape?

Ans: Select the shape to be changed. Select the Format tab; use the “Change Shape” button in the Shape Styles group.

Just as in Word 2003 or prior Word versions, the default standard view for Word 2007 is the Draft view (and is still also called the Normal view in Word 2007):

Ans: False

Which among the following options could be used to turn off the Office Clipboard?

Ans: All of the above

State whether true or false:
ASCII-formatted text contains no formatting information such as bold, italic, or fonts.

Ans: True

State whether true or false:
New text animation effects can be applied in Microsoft Word 2007.

Ans: False

State whether true or false:
Once a bullet is removed from the “Bullet Library” and it is no longer available in the “Document Bullets” area, the bullet cannot be added back to the Bullet Library.

Ans: False

This question is based upon the figure shown below
How will you insert text boxes for a printed form?

Ans: Select the Insert tab, in the Text group, click on Text Box and then select Draw Text Box.

This question is based upon the figure shown below
Refer to the given picture. Which of the following options turns off Enhanced ScreenTips but keeps the ScreenTips still visible?

Ans: B

Which of the following statements is true if you open an existing file, make changes to it, and save it with a new name?

A.the original file will be deleted.
B.the original file remains unchanged.
C.the changes will be saved in the original file
d.the original file is sent to the recycle bin

The left side of the start menu contains two parts, separated by a thin horizontal line. The windows xp term for manually inserting a shortcut to one of your chosen applications into the top part of the left side (by using the right-context menu of the application in windows explorer) is called:

a.attaching an application to the start menu.
B.pinning an application to the start menu
c.placing an application into the start menu.
D.porting an application to the start menu

Which of the following features is/are available in windows xp?
A.a built-in cd burner
b.windows media player
c.windows antivirus
d.internet connection firewall
e. Microsoft excel

The microsoft file format that contains the bitmapped graphics and metadata for the skins used in the three preinstalled windows xp visual themes is:

a..msthemes
b..msstyles
c..msskins
d..msluna

Which of the following statements about the stand by option while shutting down your computer is/are correct?

A.it waits for 5 minutes before shutting down the computer.
B.it helps to conserve power by shutting off some hardware, like the hard disk.
C.it shuts down the computer for a specific time and then restarts it.
D.stand by will save your desktop and all open files to a special windows file called hiberfil.sys. This file usually resides in the computer's root folder (c:\hiberfil.sys).

Which statement(s) about the recycle bin is/are correct?

A.all deleted files except media files are sent to the recycle bin
b.you can restore any selected files from the recycle bin folder by right clicking and then selecting restore.
C.the recycle bin stores files for one month before permanently deleting them.
D.more than one file at a time cannot be restored from the recycle bin.

Which of the following statements about windows xp features is/are correct?

A.windows xp can automatically download updates.
B.windows xp offline files allows you to synchronize your files with your file server.
C.if fast user switching is enabled, you cannot use offline files.
D.there is a "system restore" functionality within windows xp.

While viewing file names through the windows explorer, what happens if you drag and drop a file named letter1.txt on top of another file named letter2.txt lying in the same folder?

A.the contents of letter2.txt will be replaced by the contents of letter1.txt.
B.the contents of letter1.txt will be replaced by the contents of letter2.txt.
C.the contents of letter1.txt will be appended to the contents of letter2.txt.
D.the contents of letter2.txt will be appended to the contents of letter1.txt.
E.nothing will happen.

Which of the following type of objects can you search on your computer and on the network, using windows xp search companion?

A.people in your contact list
b.pictures
c.documents
d.windows help
e.all of the above

You can create and edit files using the windows notepad. What is the extension of a file that has been created using notepad?

A..doc
b..text
c..txt
d..html

Microsoft makes available a tool called the _____________________ for checking computers with a windows operating system. This tool helps remove infections left by third-party software installed on the computer and displays a report describing the outcome in a log file named mrt.log in the %windir%\debug folder.

A.microsoft reliability tool
b.microsoft windows malicious software removal tool
c.microsoft windows antivirus tool
d.microsoft recovery tool

Windows xp includes a new type of view for folders that contain graphics files. This folder view is called _________ and displays small images of all the graphics in the folder in the bottom right-hand pane of windows explorer and a large image of a selected picture in the top right-hand pane.

A.gallery
b.images
c.pictures
d.filmstrip

You have created a directory called test that includes the files test1.txt, test2.txt, test3.txt, test4.txt, test5.txt, and test6.txt. How can you select test2.txt, text3.txt, and test6.txt from the list of files visible in the windows explorer?

A.press ctrl and click on the three required files, one by one.
B.press shift and click on the three required files, one by one.
C.press alt and click on the three required files, one by one.
D.right-click each file name, one by one, and choose the cut option.

State whether the following statement is true or false.

With windows xp, you cannot specify that files with certain file name extensions should always open in the same program.

A.true
b.false

What should you type on the command prompt to return back to windows?

A.quit
b.return
c.leave
d.exit

Starting with windows 95, the file manager tool for organizing and controlling the files and folders of the computer's storage systems, such as the hard drive(s) and disk drive(s) has been called:

a.windows manager
b.internet explorer
c.windows explorer

Windows ta:windows xp has several command-line utility tools for troubleshooting the computer. Suppose that your computer seems to have a problem with connecting to the internet. Before reporting your connectivity problems to your isp, which tool could you use to display the current tcp/ip network configuration values and to refresh the dynamic host configuration protocol (dhcp) and domain name system (dns) settings?

A.ping
b.ipconfig
c.tracert
d.msconfig

Which of the following activities can you accomplish with the remote desktop feature in windows xp?

A.you can get a miniature view of your desktop by clicking on the desktop icon.
B.you can automatically clear up unwanted desktop icons.
C.you can view files and documents on your computer's desktop from a coworker's computer.
D.you can view files and documents on any computer's desktop from your computer.

Windows xp tracks whatever files that load during every boot and application launches, and the operating system uses that information to prefetch files into ram. These prefetch data are parsed into a file named __________ located in the windows\prefetch folder on the boot drive. Every three days, a limited defragmentation operation automatically occurs in the background during idle for only those files in that file to further speed up the computer's file access.

A.defrag.sys
b.prefetch.sys
c.defrag.ini
d.layout.ini

Elance - Cisco skill test 2014
Elance Cisco Test Syllabus
- Network Security
- WAN Technologies
- LAN Switching & VLANs
- Routing
- Operating Cisco Devices
- Networking Fundamentals
- TCP/IP, Subnetting & VLSM
For getting offers to job in networking- Cisco in Odesk and Elance a test is essential. These questions and result helping you getting a top 10% score in this field. So you must follow this.

What is the number of collision domains on a 16 port switch?

d.16

Which encapsulation method will you choose if you want to connect to cisco router and a non cisco router with a serial connection?

a.HDLC

Which of the following devices can be connected using rollover cable?

a. Router Ethernet Port to Router Ethernet Port

b. Switch Console Port to PC COM Port

c. Switch Ethernet Port to Switch Port

d. Router Ethernet Port to Switch Ethernet Port

e. Router Console Port to PC COM Port

Which of the following switches support both isl and 802.1Q encapsulation methods.

c. 3560

Which two factors are used by default for calculation of metric by EIGRP?

a. Bandwidth

e. delay

If interface Ethernet 0 is showing that is a administratively down, what you will do to turn it on?

a. Change the cable connected with Ethernet 0

b. Restart the router

c. Execute ‘no shutdown’ command

d. Execute ‘clock rate’ command

The question is based upon the figure shown below

CISCO Troubleshooting WAN Problems

Refer to the diagram
Host A is not able to communicate with Host B. Router A can communicate with Host B. What could be the problem?
a. Host A’s IP address is incorrect
b. Router A’s Ethernet 0 IP address in incorrect
c. Host B’s address is incorrect
d. No routing is configured among the routers

Which command will you use to configure IP address on an interface?
a. Router(config-if)# ip 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
b. Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
c. Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1./24
d. Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1. 255.255.255.0
e. Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1. subnet 255.255.255.0

How many bearer(B) and data(D) channel/s are there in a standard ISDN BRI service?
a. 2B +1D Channel
b. 23B + 1D Channel

c. 24B + 2D Channels
d. 16B + 1D Channel

Which of the following are examples of the Data Link Layer?

a. Token ring

b. IP

c. Ethernet

d MAC

e IPX

How many Broadcast Domains are there if two switches are connected to each other using a trunk link?

a .2

b. 1

c. 4

d. None

What is the full form of ISDN?
a. International Subscriber Digital Network
b. International Services Digital Network
c. Internet Services Digital Network
d. Integrated Services Digital Network

Which of the following is a valid unicast IP address?

a. 127.0.0.1

b. 224.5.7.1

c. 255.255.255.255

d. 172.16.5.15/30

e. 200.100.10.5/30

Routing protocols use a method to advertise many networks as one network to others routers. What is that method called?
a. Supernetting
b. Summarization
c. Subnetting
d. None of the above

In which of the following network, are DR and BDR elected in OSPF?
a. Broadcast multi-access
b. Point-to-point
c. Nonbroadcast multi-access

d. Point-to-multipoint

Which of the following services can be used to set up a database of MAC addresses that can be used for dynamic addressing of VLANs?

a. Static VLAN

b. VMPS

c. STP

d. VTP

Which of the following routing protocol are Cisco proprietary?”
a. IGRP
b. EIGRP
c. OSPF
d. RIP

Which command will apply access-list 150 on interface e0 in outbound direction?

d. Router(config-if)# ip access-group 150 out

What is the maximum speed supported y a standard ISDN BRI?
1. 64 kbps
b.128 kbps
c. 256 kbps
d. 1.544 mbps

Which of the following routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols?

a. OSPF

b. RIP

c. EIGRP

d. IGRP

If UDP receive datagrams that are not in sequence, what will it do?

a. It will drop datagrams that are not in sequence

b. It will arrange then in sequence using sequence numbers

c. It will request source host to resend them

d. None of the above

Which command will disable CDP on a router?

a. No cdp run

b. Disable cdp

c. No cdp enable

d. No cdp router

You made some changes in your router’s configuration and executed the following command.

Router#copy run start

When you restarted your router it went into the Setup mode. What is the problem?

a. The command ‘copy run start’ is incorrect

b.The NVRAM is corrupt

c. The value of configuration register is set to 0×2142

d. Nothing is wrong; you have to configure the router every time it restarts

Which of the following devices can be connected using a straight cable?

a. Hub & switch

b. Router & PC

c. PC & PC

d. Router & switch

What is the command to show Frame relay map table?

a.Router(config)# show frame-relay map

b. Router#show frame-relay

c. Router(config-router)#show frame-relay table

d. Router#show frame-relay map

Which is the command for copying a router’s IOS to TFTP server?

c. copy flash: tftp

Different routing protocols use different methods to calculate the distance to a network. What is that method called?

a. Administrative Distance

b.Metric

c.Routing Table

d.None of the above

Which command is used to encrypt all the passwords of a router?
a. enable password-encryption
b. service password-encryption
c. encrypt passwords
d. enable encrypt-password

What is the OUI portion of MAC address B4-3F-95-5F-1D-09 in binary?
a. 10110100-00111111-10010101
b. 11100110-11001001-01110011
c. 11000011-10000111-11110001
d. 00111100-100100001-10111001

Which is the commend to view all available commands in the mode you are working in?

b.?

What is the maximum number of subnets (usable) that you can create in a class B network?
a. 16384
b. 32768
c. 65536
d. infinite

Which of the following must be configured on a switch to segment Broadcast Domain?

a. VTP

b. PVC

c. VLAN

d. FTP

e. TFTP

What is the administrative distance (ad) of OSPF?

c. 110

What is the speed of a T1 line?

a. 128 kbps

b. 144 kbps

c. 2.048 Mbps

d. 1.544 Mbps

What does CSMA/CD stand for?

a. Collision Sense Multiple Access/ Collision Detection

b. Carrier Sense Multiple Access/ Collision Deterence

c. Carrier Sense Multiple Access/ Collision Detection

d. Collision Sense Multiple Access/ Carrier Detection

What will happen if you declare interface as passive interface in igrp routing protocol?

b. the router will stop sending any dynamic updates but can still receive updates

Which layer of OSI model encapsulates packets into frame?

b. Data link layer

What is the correct order of data encapsulation in OSI model?

a. Packet, segment, frame, data, bit

b. Segment, packet, frame, bit, data

c. Bit, frame, segment, packet, data

d. Data, segment, packet, frame, bit

Which of the following cables is not prone to electrical interference?
a. Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)
b. Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)
c. Fibre Optic
d. Copper wire
e. Coaxial

Which of the following commands will you use to enable RIP version 2 on your router?
a. Router(config)#version 2
b. Router(config-router)#version 2
c. Router(config-if)# version 2
d. Router#rip version 2

On which layer of the OSI model do TCP & UDP work?

a. Transport layer

b. Session layer

c. Presentation Layer

d. Network Layer

What is the maximum number of hosts allowed on subnet 172.16.50.75/22?
a. 510
b. 1022
c. 4094
d. 8190

Which two statement are true about CHAP authentication method?

a. It is more secure than PAP

b. It is supported by HDLC

c. It is less secure than PAP

d. It sends authentication messages periodically during the connection

Which is the following devices break up a broadcast domain by default?

c. router

What should be the value of configuration register in a router to boot IOS image stored in ROM?

a. 0×2102

b. 0×2101

c. 0×2142

d. ox101

What is the maximum number of paths supported by IGRP for load balancing?

b.six

Which of the following statements is true regarding VLAN 1?

a.It is default VLAN

You are not able to create a new VLAN and cannot delete or change existing vlan on switch

c.The switch is in VTP client mode

What is the decimal equivalent of binary 11001110?

c.206

At which layer of OSI Model does a router work?

a.network layer

In which of the following modes does a switch not participate in VTP domain, but still forward VTP advertisement by trunk links?

a. Server

b. Domain

c. Client

d. Transparent

Which of the following are frame relay LMI types?
a. DLCI
b. Cisco
c. IEEE 801.1Q
d. Q933A

Which of the following ranges are reserved as private address?

a. 192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255

c. 10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255

d. 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255

What is the network ID of IP address 172.16.40.0/20?

a. 172.16.16.0

b. 172.16.36.0

c.172.16.32.0

d.172.16.0.0

What is the binary value of 157?

a. 11000111

b.10111001

c. 11100011

d. 10011101

Which of the following services can be used to set up a database of MAC addresses that can be used for dynamic addressing of VLANs?

a. Static VLAN

b. VMPS

c. STP

d. VTP

What is the main purpose of creating VLANs?

a. They create single collision domain

b. They provide fast speed to the LANs

c. They break up the broadcast domain

d. None of the above

Which command will you use to view sending and receiving of RIP update packets that normally run at the background?

a. Router(config-router)#debug ip rip

b. Router# debug rip packets

c. Router#debug ip rip

d. Router(config)# show rip packets

Which is the c ommand to delete the configuration stored in NVRAM?

a. Delete nvram

b. Erase startup

c. Delete startup

d. Erase nvram

If you set bandwidth of 64 kbps on an interface, what will be it’s cost in OSPF?

a. 256

b. 1562

c. 1024

d. 2096

Which command will disable CDP on a router?

a. No cdp run

b. Disable cdp

c. No cdp enable

d. No cdp router

Which command is used to disable domain lookup?

a. No ip domain-lookup

b. Disable domain-lookup

c. No domain-lookup

d. None of the above

How many access control list can be applied on an interface?

a. One access control list in each direction for each protocol

b. Two access control lists in each direction

c. Unlimited

d. Access control list connate be applied on an interface

Which of the following statements are true for inter VLAN communication?

a. A router that supports inter VLAN communication is required

b. The router must support the same encapsulation method as supported by the switch

c. If the router has only one Ethernet interface, sub-interfaces must be configured

d. All of the above

Which statement is true about RID(Router ID) in OSPF?

a. It is always the highest IP address of active interfaces

b. It is the highest IP address of all configured loopback interfaces

c. It is locally significant

d. It is only used for election of DR

Which command will you execute to see whether the cable attached with your router’s Serial 0 is DCE or DTE?

a. Show controllers serial 0

b. Show interface serial 0

c. Show IP interface serial 0

d.Show interface brief serial 0

Which of the following switching methods forward the frame after reading the destination MAC address only?

a.Fast forward

b.Cut-through

c. Fragment free

d. Store and forward

Which of the following frame-tagging methods can be used for creating a trunk link between Cisco and Non Cisco switches?

a. ISL

b. VTP

c. IEEE802.1Q

d. IEFT

Which of the following are store in RAM?

a.Starup-config

b. Running-config

c. Routing table

d. All of the above

Which of the following provides routing protocol support for IPX. Appletalk and IP

networks simultaneously?

a. RIPv2

b. OSPF

c. IGRP

d. EIGRP

Which of the following commands show Cisco IOS image file name?

a. Show startup

b. Show running

c. Show version

d. Show history

Which protocol is used to find the MAC address of a device whose IP address is known?

a. ARP

b. SMTP

c. IARP

d. RARP

Which command will you execute to use 16 subnets of a class C network with subnet mask of 255.255.255.240?

a.Router(config)#ip all-subnets

b.Router(config)#ip subnet 16

c.Router(config)#ip classless

d.Router(config)#ip subnet-zero

Which of the following command is used to set console password?

a.Router(config)# enable secret abc

b.Router(config)# enable password abc

c.Router(config)# console password abc

d. Router(config-line)#password abc

Which of the following VLANs is recommended by Cisco to be used as an administrative VLAN?

a. VLAN 0

b. VLAN 1

c. VLAN 1024

d. VLAN 16

You executed the following command on your router.

Router(config)#router ospf 15

Which command will you execute next to complete OSPF configuration on your router?

a. Router(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0. 255.555.0.0. area 5

b. Router(config)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 5

c. Router(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0. 0.0.255.255 area 5

d. Router(config# ip route ospf 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 area 5

If you have a subnet mask of /26 for class c network, how many subnets and host per subnet will you get?

a. 4 network and 62 hosts

b. 16 networks and 16 hosts

c. 2 networks and 128 hosts

d. 62 networks and 2 hosts

e. 6 networks and 30 hosts

Which one of the following addresses can be used as a host address for the subnet 192.168.50.16/28

a. 192.168.50.32

b. 192.168.50.16

c. 192.168.40.64

d. 192.168.50.30

Which is the command to configure q933a as frame relay LMI type?

a. Router(config)# frame-relay lmi-type q933a

b. Router#lmi-type q933a

c.. Router(config-if)#frame-relay lmi-type q933a

d. Router(config-if)#lmi-type q933a

If UDP receive datagrams that are not in sequence, what will it do?

a. It will drop datagrams that are not in sequence

b. It will arrange then in sequence using sequence numbers

c. It will request source host to resend them

d. None of the above

Which of the following devices can be connected using a straight cable?

a. Hub & switch

b. Router & PC

c. PC & PC

d. Router & switch

What is the command to configure PPP encapsulation on serial 0?

a. Router(config)#configure encapsulation ppp

b. Router(config)#encapsulation ppp

c. Router(config-if)encapsulation ppp

d. Router# encapsulation ppp serial 0

What is the default value of bridge priority on Cisco switches?

a. 65536

b. 16384

c. 32768

d. 256

What is the default value of flush timer in IGRP?

a. 630 seconds

b.90 seconds

c. 270 seconds

d. None of the above

If a router has been configured for static routing, IGRP, OSPF, EIGRP and RIP with their default values, which routing will the router use to send data?

a. RIP

b. OSPF

c. IGRP

d. EIGRP

e Static Routing

What do you understand from the following commands?

Access-list 110 deny tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0. 255 any eq 21

Access-list 110 permit ip any any

a. This access-list denies any Telnet traffic from network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0

b. This access-list allows any IP traffic from any source t any destination

c. This access-list denies any FTP traffic from network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0

d. This access-list denies any FTP traffic to network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0

This question is based upon the figure shown below

CISCO Router Serial Links Subnet Masks

Which of the following subnet masks should you use on Router A and Router B serial links so that there is minimum wastage of IP addresses?
a. 255.255.255.255
b. 255.255.0.0
c. 255.255.255.0
d. 255.255.255.252
e. 255.255.255.254

Which of the following addresses is reserved for loopback tests?
a. 10.0.0.1
b. 172.16.0.1
c. 192.168.0.1
d. 127.0.0.1

What is the binary value of hex BF?
a. 10100000
b. 10111111
c. 11111000
d. 00111011

Which of the following routing protocols are not classless routing protocols?

a. EIGRP

b. OSPF

c. IGRP

d. RIP v1

Which of the following routing protocols support VLSM?

a. RIP v1

b. RIP v2

c.IGRP

d. EIGRP

e. OSPF

Which command is used to view IP routing table?

a. Show ip table

b.Show route

c.Show ip route

d. Show routing table

Which command is used to view the list of all active connections made to the console and VTY ports of your router?

a. Show sessions

b. Show connections

c. Show lines

d. Show users

Which command/s will you use to configure static routing on a router?a. Router(config)# ip route static
b. Router(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 172.16.0.1
c. Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.0.1
d. Router(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 E1
e. Router(config)# ip route 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 127.0.0.1

Which of the following is a Multicast Address?
a. 127.0.0.1
b. 192.168.1.255
c. 10.0.0.0
d. 224.10.1.7

Which command is used to configure the configuration-register of a router?
a. Router(config)# config-register 0×2102
b. Router# config-register 0×2102
c. Router(config-line)# config-register 0×2102
d. Router(config-router) config-register 0×2102

Which of the following Protocols work on Application Layer of OSI model?
a. HTTP
b. FTP
c. IP
d. UDP

What is the default number of commands that a router can show if you execute ‘show history’ command?
a. 15
b. 10
c. 20
d. 256

Which of the following devices is used to connect a non ISDN device with an ISDN network?
a. NT1
b. TE2
c. TA
d. TE1

Which key combination is used to interrupt the boot sequence of a route?
a. Esc + Ctrl
b. Ctrl + Z
c. Ctrl + Break
d. Alt + Ctrl + Del

What is the hop count limit for OSPF?
a. 15
b. 255
c. 256
d. None

State whether True or False
You can only create that number of VLANs which are equivalent to the number of ports on a switch
a. True
b. False

How many bits of a MAC address are used by OUI portion?
a. 32 bits
b. 48 bits
c. 24 bits
d. 16 bits

Which two authentication methods can be used with PPP links?
a. CHAP
b. Verisign
c. PAP
d. MD5

State whether True of False
You have two routers connected with point-to-point links using different encapsulation methods. They will be able to communicate with each other.
a. True
b. False

Which of the following things are stored in RAM?
a. ARP cache
b. Running configuration
c. Routing tables
d. All of the above

Which protocol uses port number 23?
a. FTP
b. SMTP
c. Telnet
d. HTTP

In which of the following memories is Mini-OS or boot loader of a router stored?
a. RAM
b. ROM
c. NVRAM
d. Flash Memory

Which type of NAT uses different ports to map multiple IP addresses to a single global IP address?
a. Dynamic NAT
b. NAT with overloading
c. Static NAT
d. All of the above

Which information is exchanged by Cisco devices on which CDP is running?
a. Routing Tables
b. Platform
c. Traffic Data
d. Capabilities List
e. Username & Password

What is the speed of ISDN PRI service with 30B + 1D channel?
a. 2.048 Mpbs
b. 1.544 Mbps
c. 144 Kbps
d. 128 Kbps

Which is the default mode of operation in a VTP domain for all catalyst switches?a. Client
b. Server
c. Transparent
d. None of the above

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